Continue to Site

Eng-Tips is the largest engineering community on the Internet

Intelligent Work Forums for Engineering Professionals

  • Congratulations IDS on being selected by the Eng-Tips community for having the most helpful posts in the forums last week. Way to Go!

Bernoulli and Required Head

Status
Not open for further replies.

CPENG78

Civil/Environmental
Sep 2, 2008
186
I need a little push with this calculation. Even though my initial reaction is that this is a simple calculation, I think the lack of sleep is catching up to me (crazy deadline for a different project)and not letting me visualize the approach.

So I have a 54 inch pipe (193 lf) which outfalls into a sump situation. Water builds up in the pipe and is allowed to bubble up over a ridge (top of ridge elevation = 7.6 ft) to eventually end up in open space (wetlands). The invert of the pipe at the outfall (sump) is 2.62. The 1st manhole upstream is at invert 3.94 and the rim is at 9.5, at which point pipe changes in size to a 42 inch line. There are 243 lf of this 42 inch pipe before it reaches the 2nd manhole upstream at invert elevation of 4.96 and rim elevation of 10.6.

Assuming the 54 inch pipe is completely submerged, what is the required head you would need to push that water so that it will continue to bubble up over the ridge?

I started with Bernoulli's equation, from the point of interest of unknown elevation to the ridge at 7.6.

pressue head at either end is 0 since I'm assuming both ends open to the atmosphere (assuming water surface will not exceed the rim elevation creating pressurized flow)

velocity in both the 54 inch and 42 inch pipes is determined as 7.2 fps and 12 fps respectively based on assumption that pipes are running full and the Q = 115 cfs. Velocity head at 54 inch determined to be 2.24 and the veolocity head at the 42 inch is 0.80.

I'm ignoring friction losses for now.

Therefore am I oversimplifying this and determiing the head required to push the water over the ridge to be 0.80-2.24 or 1.44 ft? Just doesn't sound right to me. Any input on what I'm missing is greatly appreciated.
 
Replies continue below

Recommended for you

You can't ignore friction losses. If there are no friction losses then you have a level hydraulic gradient (similar to a lake). Thus, water will crest the ridge when the upstream water level is equal to the elevation of your ridge plus a smidge.

==========
"Is it the only lesson of history that mankind is unteachable?"
--Winston S. Churchill
 
Have you got a picture of this? I can't follow the ups and downs of your description.

David
 
CPENG78
Grab a copy of FHWA HEC22 and run through (see link below) the hydraulic gradeline computation. The proceedure I would follow is:
1. Weir analysis on bubble up section to establish flow and head at outfall.
2. Exit loss (1XVh-54"Dia)
3. Friction loss to next upstream node (MH) (Q/K)^2xLpipe
4. Node loss (Manhole loss)(See chapter 7)
5. Friction loss to next upstream node
6. Node loss

Continue this until you reach your inlet or point of interest. You can either compute the HGL upstream or the entire headloss through the system.

 
Everyone - Thank you for your input.

Zdas04 - attached is a sketch (not to scale) but hopefully clears up what I was trying to describe.

I have donwloaded the HEC22 and certainly the losses are a bit more than I expected. Thank you fel3 and qbam.

Any additional input will certainly be appreciated.
 
 http://files.engineering.com/getfile.aspx?folder=d3aaa85b-bc1e-44b2-bba9-e5de5993bfcf&file=Sketch.pdf
Do what gbam suggests.

The sort of thing you're describing is pretty common in central/southern Florida designs.



Hydrology, Drainage Analysis, Flood Studies, and Complex Stormwater Litigation for Atlanta and the South East -
 
Status
Not open for further replies.

Part and Inventory Search

Sponsor