jraef
Electrical
- May 29, 2002
- 11,359
Believe it or not this question has never come up for me before. When we reduce speed in a motor with a VFD how do we evaluate the efficiency of the motor itself at the reduced speed? Is it based on it being essentially a lower kW motor running at peak efficiency, or does the motor efficiency vs load curve stay the same regardless? To my mind, if we have reduced the speed of 20kW motor to 50%, essentially we have changed the motor to a 10kW motor, so the efficiency would still be somewhere in the higher range. But what I'm not clear on is that when a motor's efficiency percentage drops off with load, isn't it mainly because the percentage of consumption in magnetic losses remains relatively constant regardless of load? If so, do those losses decrease when using a VFD because we are decreasing the voltage as we reduce frequency?
Any thoughts?
Just for argument sake, forget harmonics etc., this is more about how motor efficiency curves are determined.
"If I had eight hours to chop down a tree, I'd spend six sharpening my axe." -- Abraham Lincoln
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Any thoughts?
Just for argument sake, forget harmonics etc., this is more about how motor efficiency curves are determined.
"If I had eight hours to chop down a tree, I'd spend six sharpening my axe." -- Abraham Lincoln
For the best use of Eng-Tips, please click here -> faq731-376