swearingen
Civil/Environmental
- Feb 15, 2006
- 663
A post in the Language/Grammar forum reminded me of a conflict that is happening in my area - south Louisiana.
Last week, my office (say, Company A) was out of power and we were instructed to stay home due to a minor wind storm.
Company B was out of power until Tuesday night and sent out an email (at 9:00pm) to its employees to show up Wednesday. Since 90% of the employees were out of power and they couldn't get email (who would expect one from work at 9:00pm any way?), most didn't show up until Thursday.
Company C was out of power all week as well.
Now, after Katrina, most companies did not give any benefits to their employees - the employees had to use vacation time for the time the office was closed. Well, times have changed. Company B paid for two days (Monday was the Labor Day holiday). Company C was incredibly generous and paid for the entire week. Company A is giving vacation hours equivalent to 65% of the time off (35% comes out of our vacation time).
The question came up as to whether the companies should "charge" us for time when the office is closed and inaccessible. The argument was made that the Wal-Mart down the street has non-exempt employees and they only get paid for the hours they work. Fair enough. But does exempt status require the companies to pay us for the full time the office was unavailable? Is there a law in the books stating this?
If you "heard" it on the internet, it's guilty until proven innocent. - DCS
Last week, my office (say, Company A) was out of power and we were instructed to stay home due to a minor wind storm.
Company B was out of power until Tuesday night and sent out an email (at 9:00pm) to its employees to show up Wednesday. Since 90% of the employees were out of power and they couldn't get email (who would expect one from work at 9:00pm any way?), most didn't show up until Thursday.
Company C was out of power all week as well.
Now, after Katrina, most companies did not give any benefits to their employees - the employees had to use vacation time for the time the office was closed. Well, times have changed. Company B paid for two days (Monday was the Labor Day holiday). Company C was incredibly generous and paid for the entire week. Company A is giving vacation hours equivalent to 65% of the time off (35% comes out of our vacation time).
The question came up as to whether the companies should "charge" us for time when the office is closed and inaccessible. The argument was made that the Wal-Mart down the street has non-exempt employees and they only get paid for the hours they work. Fair enough. But does exempt status require the companies to pay us for the full time the office was unavailable? Is there a law in the books stating this?
If you "heard" it on the internet, it's guilty until proven innocent. - DCS