mechie17
Mechanical
- Jan 9, 2007
- 5
As part of a valve analysis I am looking at a swinging disc arm. I have not done an analysis like this for a while so I am using a previous calc (not done by me) as a guide. The portion I am looking at right now considers the bending moment acting on the arm as a function of distance from the pivot caused by the inertia of the arm (it's a pretty big valve). I have a number of reactions while looking at this. First, the original calculator (the person, not the program) defines the bending moment at X as "the moment caused by that portion of the arm to the right of x" (where the pivot is to the left of x). At first this makes sense because if you are considering inertia the more of the bulk of the arm involved the higher it should be. But then, this also means that at X=0 the moment is highest which seems counter-intuitive. This is complicated further (at least in my head) by the fact that the pivot is at the lower corner of the arm as opposed to being located along the central axis. So my questions is this:
How do I consider inertial moment as a function of distance from the pivot when the pivot is offset from the members central axis?
Please explain what this means physically as it is somehow eluding me.
How do I consider inertial moment as a function of distance from the pivot when the pivot is offset from the members central axis?
Please explain what this means physically as it is somehow eluding me.