I posted an example solution. It is in the form of a Matlab notebook file which is also a microsoft word file.
There is a lot of explanation and graphs. It should be mildly interesting even if you're not into Matlab, IMHO.
Here are my results:
2nd harmonic as percent of first:
0.4887
3nd harmonic as percent of first:
0.3260
4th harmonic as percent of first:
0.1797
Compare this to GE's result:
2nd harmonic - 63%
3rd harmonic 27%
4th harmonic 5%
Note there are many variables with regard to saturation characteristics. Also the phase at time of close in will affect the exact result. I don't believe that the failure to include resistance in the model makes much difference.
I started thinking a little bit about the effect of adding load to the transformer. I was first tempted to take the load impedance and combine with exciting impedance as an equivalent circuit. Even if there were not saturation to consider, that approach would still be totally wrong since the impedances of these two branches have a ratio which depends on frequency. The transient involves sudden application of voltage... and this cannot be analysed in the same manner as single-frequency sinusoidal steady state.
It it interesting to note that if we ignore the primary leakage reactance, we will apply the same voltage to the magnetizing branch and to the load/secondary leakage reactance. The resulting current will be close to the addition/superposition of the currents expected from these two branches. i.e. normal inrush as shown in attached, plus decaying dc-offset load inrush current.