YuJie_PV
Mechanical
- Jan 19, 2017
- 143
hi experts,
i am checking a FEA REPORT of a buffer tank designed to asme viiii-1. in the meantime, the buffer tank is subjected to cyclic loading, thus VIII-2 part 5 is referred to evaluate the risk of fatigue failure.
and now i have following inquiries:
1, is it mandatory to check other failures mechanism, such as plastic collapse (part 5.2) , local failure (part 5.3)and ratcheting (part 5.5.6 ), for the tank as specified in VIII-2 part 5, while the vessel has been performed with the calculation per VIII-1 for shell, heads, nozzles, etc? and why?
2, the operating pressure fluctuates from 0.6~1.2MPa. the author of FEA report apply a pressure of 0.6(1.2-0.6=0.6)MPa to the model to get the equivalent stress range, based on which fatigue is evaluated per VIII-2. is such a simplification acceptable? i know it violates the equation in part 5..5.3 of ASME VIII-2 related to the calculation of effective alternating equivalent stress.
i just wonder if such simplification may actually get an approximate result not deviating too much from the results when fully following equation of 5.5.3 (stress under 1.2Mpa-stress under 0.6MPa).
have you ever encountered such practice before?
thanks for any insight on the issues.
i am checking a FEA REPORT of a buffer tank designed to asme viiii-1. in the meantime, the buffer tank is subjected to cyclic loading, thus VIII-2 part 5 is referred to evaluate the risk of fatigue failure.
and now i have following inquiries:
1, is it mandatory to check other failures mechanism, such as plastic collapse (part 5.2) , local failure (part 5.3)and ratcheting (part 5.5.6 ), for the tank as specified in VIII-2 part 5, while the vessel has been performed with the calculation per VIII-1 for shell, heads, nozzles, etc? and why?
2, the operating pressure fluctuates from 0.6~1.2MPa. the author of FEA report apply a pressure of 0.6(1.2-0.6=0.6)MPa to the model to get the equivalent stress range, based on which fatigue is evaluated per VIII-2. is such a simplification acceptable? i know it violates the equation in part 5..5.3 of ASME VIII-2 related to the calculation of effective alternating equivalent stress.
i just wonder if such simplification may actually get an approximate result not deviating too much from the results when fully following equation of 5.5.3 (stress under 1.2Mpa-stress under 0.6MPa).
have you ever encountered such practice before?
thanks for any insight on the issues.