Twoballcane
Mechanical
Hello All,
I know that if springs are in series I can sum them like this 1/K = 1/K1 + 1/K2 … to get the equivalent spring constant. Do you know if I can do the same with natural frequencies? If I had the following (made up for this example): fn1=10hz, fn2=50hz, and fn3=30hz in series, can I calculate the equivalent natural frequency? Thus 1/fn = 1/fn1 + 1/fn2 + 1/fn3, which will give me equivalent fn = 6.5hz
Does this make sense? Somebody is asking me to do this, but not sure if correct.
Thanks in advance for your input!
Tobalcane
"If you avoid failure, you also avoid success."