jaywing
Mechanical
- Feb 15, 2012
- 1
I have an existing installation that I'm trying to apply the fan laws to. As shown in the attachment, we've had a testing and balancing firm perform tests to see what the system is currently doing. These tests were performed with the bypass dampers open. I am trying to calculate what the new airflow will be with the bypass dampers closed and with the air flowing through the heat exchanger.
Using the fan laws:
CFM1/CFM2=RPM1/RPM2
SP1/SP2=(RPM1/RPM2)^2
Substituting the two equations for RPM:
SP1/SP2=(CFM1/CFM2)^2
Knowing the pressure drop through the HX is 1":
2.00"/(2.00"-1.00")=(57,000 CFM/X CFM)^2
I get 40,305 CFM as the new airflow. Can the fan laws be used in this situation? I'm not sure if the two situations are considered 'similar conditions' for fan laws to apply, and I'm also concerned that I seem to be equating the flow at I with the flow at II.
Using the fan laws:
CFM1/CFM2=RPM1/RPM2
SP1/SP2=(RPM1/RPM2)^2
Substituting the two equations for RPM:
SP1/SP2=(CFM1/CFM2)^2
Knowing the pressure drop through the HX is 1":
2.00"/(2.00"-1.00")=(57,000 CFM/X CFM)^2
I get 40,305 CFM as the new airflow. Can the fan laws be used in this situation? I'm not sure if the two situations are considered 'similar conditions' for fan laws to apply, and I'm also concerned that I seem to be equating the flow at I with the flow at II.