corus
Mechanical
- Nov 6, 2002
- 3,165
For steel material properties the fatigue limit, in terms of the stress range, is often given in rotating bending. If the mean stress is zero how can the compressive stress contribute to the fatigue damage when there are no welds?
Also, in the British Standard on fatigue it is said that, for parent metal, when part of the cycle is compressive then the contribution to the stress range is 60% of the compressive stress. Where does this figure come from and why add any proportion of the compressive stress part of the cycle when the damage must come from tensile stresses?
corus
Also, in the British Standard on fatigue it is said that, for parent metal, when part of the cycle is compressive then the contribution to the stress range is 60% of the compressive stress. Where does this figure come from and why add any proportion of the compressive stress part of the cycle when the damage must come from tensile stresses?
corus