BigMotorGuy
Electrical
- Jul 27, 2009
- 56
In a typical 3ph IM (in this case a 2500Hp motor), what residual magnetization levels at the shaft bearing journals would be capable of creating bearing currents? I realize this would be dependant on the bearing impedance, but we have a shaft that had a bearing failure and now has about 125 gauss in the area of the bearing journal. I assume the mechanical influence from the bearing failure created the magnetic effect, but is it prudent to demag the shaft? Any input on this would be apppreciated....