NS4U
Structural
- Apr 2, 2007
- 320
this is a pretty basic question as i am trying to understand the fundamental differences between slope stability and ultimate bearing capacity. I do understand the whole 2pi vs 1pi thing for bearing capacity vs slope stability.
if i have a shallow foundation at the top of a slope (assume homogenous soils), what is the difference between the ultimate bearing capacity, using say Myerhoff's equation (modified to account for the slope), vs the capacity given by a slope stability analysis?
Maybe i am picturing this too simplicitcally, but I imagine the failure plane for slope stability should look pretty close to the failure surface that the ult. bearing capacity formulas are based on.
I ask because I am getting some signficantly different results when I calc the bearing capacity by hand compared to when I do a slope stability analysis in slopeW. I would have expected them to be reasonably close to each other.
thanks for the help
if i have a shallow foundation at the top of a slope (assume homogenous soils), what is the difference between the ultimate bearing capacity, using say Myerhoff's equation (modified to account for the slope), vs the capacity given by a slope stability analysis?
Maybe i am picturing this too simplicitcally, but I imagine the failure plane for slope stability should look pretty close to the failure surface that the ult. bearing capacity formulas are based on.
I ask because I am getting some signficantly different results when I calc the bearing capacity by hand compared to when I do a slope stability analysis in slopeW. I would have expected them to be reasonably close to each other.
thanks for the help