Qrs
Structural
- Sep 30, 2013
- 35
When you are strengthening an existing joist, all references say that “forces are distributed between existing member and the reinforcing member in direct proportion to their area”. This is in the “Designing with Vulcraft” document as well as the paper “Strengthening Open Web Steel Joists” by James Fischer. But why is this?
Let’s assume we have a total axial load of 14k in the bottom chord of a steel joist due to the addition of an RTU. The original design allowed for 7k of force in the bottom chord. There is a preload of 3k in the bottom chord (from existing DL). For the example, lets also assume that the existing bottom chord of the joist has an area of 0.325in^2.
The reference documents say that the amount of steel you will need for reinforcing is (14k-3k)/(7k-3k)*0.325in^2 = 0.893in^2 of reinforcing required. This is because the angle will take an additional force in direct proportion to its area: (0.325/0.893)*(14k-3k) = 4k. This 4k + the 3k of preload = 7k which is within the capacity of the original design.
But I guess my question is why does the angle take the force in proportion to its area? With an area of 0.893in^2, the reinforcing can take up to 19.25k on its own!! But we need the reinforcing to be this big not for capacity, but so that the angle is not over stressed. If we use a smaller area of reinforcing, the existing chord angle will take a greater percentage of the load and will have >7k force as originally designed.
But this doesn’t look like a problem to be. It seems to me that if the angle is overstressed it will start to yield and then the additional force will go into the reinforcing. Let’s assume we use 0.5in^2 of reinforcing. Then the angle will supposedly take (0.325/0.5)*(14k-3k)=7.15k of the additional load. Add that to the 3k of preload and you get 10.15k of load. This is over the 7k original designed. Won’t the angle start to yield and the additional force will go into the reinforcing? The reinforcing can take 10.77k on its own, so there is plenty of capacity for the additional load. Seems to me like the angle will take 7k of load as designed, and the reinforcing will pick up the slack – but that is not what literature suggests.
Can anyone help explain this to me?
Thanks.
Let’s assume we have a total axial load of 14k in the bottom chord of a steel joist due to the addition of an RTU. The original design allowed for 7k of force in the bottom chord. There is a preload of 3k in the bottom chord (from existing DL). For the example, lets also assume that the existing bottom chord of the joist has an area of 0.325in^2.
The reference documents say that the amount of steel you will need for reinforcing is (14k-3k)/(7k-3k)*0.325in^2 = 0.893in^2 of reinforcing required. This is because the angle will take an additional force in direct proportion to its area: (0.325/0.893)*(14k-3k) = 4k. This 4k + the 3k of preload = 7k which is within the capacity of the original design.
But I guess my question is why does the angle take the force in proportion to its area? With an area of 0.893in^2, the reinforcing can take up to 19.25k on its own!! But we need the reinforcing to be this big not for capacity, but so that the angle is not over stressed. If we use a smaller area of reinforcing, the existing chord angle will take a greater percentage of the load and will have >7k force as originally designed.
But this doesn’t look like a problem to be. It seems to me that if the angle is overstressed it will start to yield and then the additional force will go into the reinforcing. Let’s assume we use 0.5in^2 of reinforcing. Then the angle will supposedly take (0.325/0.5)*(14k-3k)=7.15k of the additional load. Add that to the 3k of preload and you get 10.15k of load. This is over the 7k original designed. Won’t the angle start to yield and the additional force will go into the reinforcing? The reinforcing can take 10.77k on its own, so there is plenty of capacity for the additional load. Seems to me like the angle will take 7k of load as designed, and the reinforcing will pick up the slack – but that is not what literature suggests.
Can anyone help explain this to me?
Thanks.