ReverenceEng
Structural
- Feb 18, 2016
- 81
Have read a few different threads that I think are close to answering my question, but don't quite come to resolution.
Question is about splicing a wood ridge beam where a center support was removed by GC. Sketch attached for clarity/reference.
We have two 4x14 structural ridge beams that met at a post in the middle of the home. Each beam is about 11' long. Contractor removed the post and simply applied splice plates to each side with six bolts each end. This splice is at midspan.
If the beam were continuous, there is no way it can handle the load. Enercalc shows 250% over stress even with best case scenarios.
I don't think the calculation would work the same as if the beam were continuous so perhaps I don't have to worry about the previous statement (or do I?), but the splice must dump some moment into the end of the beam while resolving the T/C forces generated by the "overall moment at midpan"...looking for guidance.
1. I'd like to know if anyone can point me to somewhere, or give advice, on how this calc should be performed.
2. Does anyone have thoughts on whether this "looks good" or "sounds about right", or "no, definitely not right or safe!"?
3. Does this even make sense? If a continuous beam couldn't have held the load, should we be attempting this splice?
Side note: the ridge beam actually measures 3.5" x 12.75"...anyone have insight here? Weird size.
Question is about splicing a wood ridge beam where a center support was removed by GC. Sketch attached for clarity/reference.
We have two 4x14 structural ridge beams that met at a post in the middle of the home. Each beam is about 11' long. Contractor removed the post and simply applied splice plates to each side with six bolts each end. This splice is at midspan.
If the beam were continuous, there is no way it can handle the load. Enercalc shows 250% over stress even with best case scenarios.
I don't think the calculation would work the same as if the beam were continuous so perhaps I don't have to worry about the previous statement (or do I?), but the splice must dump some moment into the end of the beam while resolving the T/C forces generated by the "overall moment at midpan"...looking for guidance.
1. I'd like to know if anyone can point me to somewhere, or give advice, on how this calc should be performed.
2. Does anyone have thoughts on whether this "looks good" or "sounds about right", or "no, definitely not right or safe!"?
3. Does this even make sense? If a continuous beam couldn't have held the load, should we be attempting this splice?
Side note: the ridge beam actually measures 3.5" x 12.75"...anyone have insight here? Weird size.