Trajano
New member
- Nov 8, 2006
- 20
Hello,
I am updating an old calculation with new loads.
It is a channel type tension fitting analysis based on Lockheed 88a. In the old calculation, in order to improve the RF, a filler was added.
The way the RF was calculated was using an *equivalent end pad thickness*:
t_eq = SQRT (t_pad^2 + E_fill / E_pad * t_fill^2)
I am trying to find out where this formula comes from, but my approachs lead to a different formula.
I consider the end pad as a simply supported beam, and the filler as another beam on top of the end pad. Two steps:
FIRST: I get the filler equiv. thickness (t_fill') as if it was made of the end pad material: assumming same deflection (E_fill*I_fill = E_pad*I_fill') I get the t_fill' = f (t_pad, t_fill, E_pad, E_fill).
SECOND: I get the end pad equiv. thickness, as the thickness (t_pad') of a single beam whose max. stress was the same as the max. stress of the original end pad beam.
K*P/[t_pad(t_pad+t_filler')] = K*P/t_pad'^2
Finally I get t_pad' , very different from the t_eq of the formula of the old calculation.
Is my approach wrong? Am I missing something?
Thanks in advance & regards
I am updating an old calculation with new loads.
It is a channel type tension fitting analysis based on Lockheed 88a. In the old calculation, in order to improve the RF, a filler was added.
The way the RF was calculated was using an *equivalent end pad thickness*:
t_eq = SQRT (t_pad^2 + E_fill / E_pad * t_fill^2)
I am trying to find out where this formula comes from, but my approachs lead to a different formula.
I consider the end pad as a simply supported beam, and the filler as another beam on top of the end pad. Two steps:
FIRST: I get the filler equiv. thickness (t_fill') as if it was made of the end pad material: assumming same deflection (E_fill*I_fill = E_pad*I_fill') I get the t_fill' = f (t_pad, t_fill, E_pad, E_fill).
SECOND: I get the end pad equiv. thickness, as the thickness (t_pad') of a single beam whose max. stress was the same as the max. stress of the original end pad beam.
K*P/[t_pad(t_pad+t_filler')] = K*P/t_pad'^2
Finally I get t_pad' , very different from the t_eq of the formula of the old calculation.
Is my approach wrong? Am I missing something?
Thanks in advance & regards