GaTechTheron
Mechanical
- Jan 26, 2006
- 109
Question:
I have noticed pump companies provide speed vs torque curves for their pumps. These curves are % Max Torque vs % Max Speed. This implies that this curve can be applied to any pump so long as motor rpm and torque (at synchronous operating speed) is known.
My question is 2 fold:
1. How can you make this assumption? How can you assume the torque is proportionally the same in two completely different types of pumps? It seems long multistage pumps (Reda or Woodgroup Style) would have far more friction than a simple stage OH2, for example. Maybe I am making an underlying assumption somewhere?
2. How is this curve developed, and why does it start higher (around 15% torque at 0 rpm),then decrease to 5% torque at 12% Speed? Since this is not a transient curve, and (I think) rpm is assumed to change slowly, it seems % torque should always increase, starting from zero, and inertia effects should not show up.
I hope this is worded clearly. Thoughts anyone?
Thanks,
Theron
I have noticed pump companies provide speed vs torque curves for their pumps. These curves are % Max Torque vs % Max Speed. This implies that this curve can be applied to any pump so long as motor rpm and torque (at synchronous operating speed) is known.
My question is 2 fold:
1. How can you make this assumption? How can you assume the torque is proportionally the same in two completely different types of pumps? It seems long multistage pumps (Reda or Woodgroup Style) would have far more friction than a simple stage OH2, for example. Maybe I am making an underlying assumption somewhere?
2. How is this curve developed, and why does it start higher (around 15% torque at 0 rpm),then decrease to 5% torque at 12% Speed? Since this is not a transient curve, and (I think) rpm is assumed to change slowly, it seems % torque should always increase, starting from zero, and inertia effects should not show up.
I hope this is worded clearly. Thoughts anyone?
Thanks,
Theron