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Using 120V, 60 Hz Single Phase Motors in Europe 1

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daucoin5

Electrical
Mar 19, 2008
1
I am sending a tri-volt (120/208-230), single phase motor (60 Hz) to run in the United Kingdom for a pumping application. (415V)

Will this motor work reliably if I make the "high voltage" connection on the motor?

230V/60 = 3.833 = V/f
3.833 x 50Hz = 191.65V = New voltage req'd.

I assume to have ~240/1/50 service.

Should I simply replace teh motor on this




 
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I would replace it: the over-voltage is too severe. Although our nominal voltage is 400/230V to align us with Europe it is still supplied from the same 415/240V infrastructure so in most locations you will see 240V. Worst case is 254V if the supply was right at the top end of the permitted range.


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If the motor is rated for 230V, how can there be an overvoltage?

I'm asking this because I don't know, not to be argumentative. I know nothing at all about 50Hz applciations, and would defer to ScottyUK or most anyone else on this site.....
 
Besides, the reactance of the start capacitor will be 6/5 of what it should be; also the run speed at 50Hz may not be high enough for the motor to switch from start to run.
 
peebee;
Search volts per hertz on this site. Also see the FAC by itsmoked on converting motors from 60 Hz to 50 Hz and vice versa.


Bill
--------------------
"Why not the best?"
Jimmy Carter
 
Okay, so the problem is really overcurrent. Got it.
 
More over-fluxing - too many volts per turn at the lower frequency for the core not to saturate magnetically. Saturation is bad news. You're right in that the problem shows up as high current.


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