RFgeezer
Electrical
- Mar 25, 2010
- 2
Let's assume I inject a radio signal into a receiver, this signal has a total power of 0 dBm (1mW)which is divided equally between two carrier frequencies F1 and F2 so that F1 and F2 are each -3dBm (1/2 mW). Now, let's assume that the receiver takes an FFT of the signal. I believe the voltages that it would report would be V_F1 and V_F2 = 0.158mV RMS assuming a 50 ohm system. Now, if we sum the POWER of F1 and F2 this gets us back to our 0dBm (1mW) signal....no problem with that (noise does of course increase by 3dB). However, if I were to be able to freqeuncy shift F1 to exactly the same freqeuncy as F2 and also make F1 and F2 have the same phase I would be able to coherently add them. Let's assume I do this. Is it then correct that I would have a 0.316mV rms sine wave as my resulting summed signal? The power of this in a 50 ohm system is then 2mW (+ 3dBm). Now that's twice as much power as the total signal power I injected into the recevier....That's a bit confusing? Again, I should also consider the noise which I believe in this case would increase by root 2 (1.5 dB). This all suggests that I could get a net SNR benefit of 4.5 dB, I like those apples but I can't help thinking that I've missed a fundamental issue somewhere?
Anyone care to comment on this one?
Anyone care to comment on this one?