Gorpomon
Mechanical
- Jul 15, 2009
- 98
Hi,
I was doing some reading on a method of developing bolt load for flanged joints, and I came upon a simplified procedure created by a fellow named Whalen. The book is "Handbook of Fluid Sealing" by Robert V. Brink, Daniel E. Czernik and Leslie A. Horve. The section is on page 3.9.
My question is this, in the description of this method, they offer two methods of getting bolt load, one by gasket seating stress, the other by hydrostatic end force, just a simplified version of the ASME BPVC guidelines.
However, this method goes on to say that the bolt load calculated by seating stress must be higher than the bolt load calculated by hydrostatic end force. If it is not, then, "gasket design must be changed, the gasket's area must be reduced, or the total bolt load must be increased."
It was my understanding that in BPVC, you just use the higher of the two, that makes sense to me. But it seems here its saying seating stress bolt load must always be higher than the hydrostatic calculation.
I have been trying to figure out a reason why it would say this, but I can't think of a good one. Can anyone explain why this might be the case?
Thanks everyone!
I was doing some reading on a method of developing bolt load for flanged joints, and I came upon a simplified procedure created by a fellow named Whalen. The book is "Handbook of Fluid Sealing" by Robert V. Brink, Daniel E. Czernik and Leslie A. Horve. The section is on page 3.9.
My question is this, in the description of this method, they offer two methods of getting bolt load, one by gasket seating stress, the other by hydrostatic end force, just a simplified version of the ASME BPVC guidelines.
However, this method goes on to say that the bolt load calculated by seating stress must be higher than the bolt load calculated by hydrostatic end force. If it is not, then, "gasket design must be changed, the gasket's area must be reduced, or the total bolt load must be increased."
It was my understanding that in BPVC, you just use the higher of the two, that makes sense to me. But it seems here its saying seating stress bolt load must always be higher than the hydrostatic calculation.
I have been trying to figure out a reason why it would say this, but I can't think of a good one. Can anyone explain why this might be the case?
Thanks everyone!