gharli
Structural
- May 28, 2015
- 42
Dear All,
Perhaps this question warrants a major refresh of classic structural engineering mechanics (speaking for myself).
Why does the stiffness of the horizontal beam in system 1 have absolutely no bearing on the moment distribution in the vertical elements? i.e. the vertical elements in the frame of system 1 are exactly the same as modelling an infinitely stiff joint (encastre). Changing the stiffness of the beam has no effect on moments.
Whereas, the stiffeness of the horizontal beams in system 2 have a marked effect on the moment distribution in the vertical elements, i.e. modelling infinitely stiff ends obviously results in higher vertical end moments.
See picture below, the wording isn't 100% accurate it should read "vertical bending moment distribution"
Perhaps this question warrants a major refresh of classic structural engineering mechanics (speaking for myself).
Why does the stiffness of the horizontal beam in system 1 have absolutely no bearing on the moment distribution in the vertical elements? i.e. the vertical elements in the frame of system 1 are exactly the same as modelling an infinitely stiff joint (encastre). Changing the stiffness of the beam has no effect on moments.
Whereas, the stiffeness of the horizontal beams in system 2 have a marked effect on the moment distribution in the vertical elements, i.e. modelling infinitely stiff ends obviously results in higher vertical end moments.
See picture below, the wording isn't 100% accurate it should read "vertical bending moment distribution"