roseda
Automotive
- Oct 4, 2001
- 90
If a disc with a large inertia is being driven at a constant speed via a flexible shaft, and a brake torque is applied to the end of the shaft (away from the disc), will the disc deceleration still be equal to torque/inertia or is it more complicated? (ignoring other effects such as bearing friction, windage etc).
None of my text books appear to cover this.
None of my text books appear to cover this.