What will happen if I calculate and rewind a 50Hz motor which was designed for 400V/Delta to 100V/Delta.
Does it mean that I can run it up to 400V/200Hz?
I will have the same torque (V/HZ ratio) up to 200Hz ==> so I will increase the power 4 times?
Should temper my previous reply of yes 4x.... A given motor size can produce a given power; so if you do nothing other than change the voltage, that same size motor will still only produce the same power as before, just at a lower voltage.
Since you did not change the number of poles, it will produce that same power at the same 'base' speed.
Example: say you have a 400v 4 pole (1800rpm @@ 60hz) 50 amp motor rated 40hp (120#-ft). If you put this on a vfd 400v drive, assuming mechanics could handle it, you can probably continue the freq up to about 140hz before you hit the breakdown torque limit (v^2 reduction limit).
So now you take out windings, rewind so now it is a '100v' motor. It is still 4 pole, so now at 60hz (1800rpm) it will want 100v and thus 200amps to produce SAME power (& 120#-ft) as before you rewound it. You just changed volts for amps.
But since you have 400 v AVAILABLE, You can continue increasing the voltage up 4x higher as you increase the frequency. Means you stay on v/hz curve and do NOT run into breakdown torque motor limit all the way to 200hz, and then can continue to increase freq at 400v limit up to breakdown limit (probably around 400hz. So you got 4x the HP up to 200hz then can continue in constant HP range up another 200+ hz.
So it did not get you any more torque, just more speed doing this.