310toumad
Mechanical
- May 12, 2016
- 63
Looking for some guidance to see if my methodology is correct in setting up this problem. Lets say you have a cylinder assembly that raises a fork/carriage structure with an overhanging load. The forks rest on the carriage via a formed strap on the top, and butting up against the bottom carriage tube. The overhanging load introduces a force couple at this location:
M = Fd1
M = 750*36.53 = 27398 in-lbs
Reactions in the force couple are equal to:
27398/d2
27398/15.5 = 1,767 lbs
So, approximating the long beam as fixed at one end at the top (bolted connection) with a roller support at the bottom (wheels tracking on cylinder casing), can I assume that a moment load (27,398 in-lbs) exists as shown? Or do I draw the FBD using the actual concentrated loads of the force couple that I solved for (1,767 lbs)?
If I did the latter, then you basically have one of the applied forces pressing down directly on the roller, so the reaction is at the same exact location. So the other force of 1767 at a distance of 75.79 would result in a moment at the fixed location of 133,920 in-lbs. That doesn't seem right though, because that's basically assuming that load is cantilevered with no support.
I could not find much info on beam formulas for the scenario of considering it as a moment load except this:
Following that method of R = 3M/2L yields R = (3*27398)/(2*91.29) = 450.2 lbs.
The moment at the wall would be M = M - RL = 27398 - (450.2*91.29) = -13,699 in-lbs
So unless I'm doing something wrong, considering the load as a moment load and using those equations would give me a much lower stress level than if I just modeled the forces as point loads. Am I missing something? Any help would be appreciated.
M = Fd1
M = 750*36.53 = 27398 in-lbs
Reactions in the force couple are equal to:
27398/d2
27398/15.5 = 1,767 lbs
So, approximating the long beam as fixed at one end at the top (bolted connection) with a roller support at the bottom (wheels tracking on cylinder casing), can I assume that a moment load (27,398 in-lbs) exists as shown? Or do I draw the FBD using the actual concentrated loads of the force couple that I solved for (1,767 lbs)?
If I did the latter, then you basically have one of the applied forces pressing down directly on the roller, so the reaction is at the same exact location. So the other force of 1767 at a distance of 75.79 would result in a moment at the fixed location of 133,920 in-lbs. That doesn't seem right though, because that's basically assuming that load is cantilevered with no support.
I could not find much info on beam formulas for the scenario of considering it as a moment load except this:
Following that method of R = 3M/2L yields R = (3*27398)/(2*91.29) = 450.2 lbs.
The moment at the wall would be M = M - RL = 27398 - (450.2*91.29) = -13,699 in-lbs
So unless I'm doing something wrong, considering the load as a moment load and using those equations would give me a much lower stress level than if I just modeled the forces as point loads. Am I missing something? Any help would be appreciated.