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Bi-Axial Bending + Tension

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JoshPlumSE

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Aug 15, 2008
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A friend recently pointed out what seems to be a flaw (albeit a small one) in the NDS.

Setion 3.9.1 deals with bending + Axial Tension.

Equation 3.9-1 deals with the side of the member that is in tension. The commmentary has some good commentary on how to extend this equation to include the effects of bi-axial bending.

ft/Ft' + fb /Fb* < 1.0 can easily become:
ft/Ft' + fb1/Fb1* + fb2/Fb2* < 1.0

Unfortunately, equation 3.9-2 really doesn't address the issue of bi-axial bending at all. This equation covers the potential failure on the compression side of the member. However, the equation assumes uni-axial bending.

(fb-ft) / Fb** < 1.0

This is the root of my question. How should we address the compression side failure of a member that is in tension and bi-axial bending?

I've got some definite opinions on how to address this, but I don't want to bias the discussion towards my point of view.
 
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The net compression due to bending will be reduced from the uniform tension. A conservative method would ignore this lessening for the compression side. The tension would have to be permanent and unchanging to use the lesser compression.
 
Josh,

Wouldn't it be something like this:

(f[sub]b[/sub] - f[sub]t[/sub]) / F[sub]b[/sub]** < 1.0

is equivalent to:

f[sub]b[/sub] / F[sub]b[/sub]** - f[sub]t[/sub]/F[sub]b[/sub]** < 1.0

So with biaxial bending, you have an f[sub]b1[/sub] and an f[sub]b2[/sub], each creating compression. The combination of the two of them creates a maximum compression on one corner of the section.

So would you just use them in an additive fashion like this?:

f[sub]b1[/sub] / F[sub]b[/sub]** + f[sub]b2[/sub] / F[sub]b[/sub]** - f[sub]t[/sub]/F[sub]b[/sub]** < 1.0

 
JAE -

I have two thoughts on this one. The first is the equation that you wrote down:

fb1 / Fb1** + fb2 / Fb2** - ft/Fb** < 1.0

Except, that we need to decide whether ft is divided by Fb1** or Fb2**.

The second would be a variation of the compression equation. Something like:

fb1/Fb1` + fb2 /(Fb`*(1-fb1/Fb1E))

Or, maybe....

fb1/Fb1` + fb2 /(Fb`*(1-(fb1/Fb1E)^2))

My thoughts are that if I've got 0.0001 lbs of compression or 0.0001 lbs of tension, then I need to get essentially the same code check for a bi-axial loaded wood member.

It's sort of an academic issue. But, since we're involved in structural software, my company ends up spending a lot of time on the "weird" cases that one would normally ignore in hand calculations.
 
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