Marijn55
Mechanical
- Jan 26, 2016
- 2
Dear all,
I'm trying to understand the theory behind Bisshopp's large deflection beam theory.
However I'm struggling to follow the steps they described here: [URL unfurl="true"]http://www.pilch.us/papers/Large%20Deflection%20of%20Cantilever%20Beams.pdf[/url]
So I am understanding the bit up until equation (7).
What I get from (6) is that:
sin ψ = 2k^2*sin(θ)^2 - 1
sin ψ0= 2k^2 - 1
however inserting this into eq (5) gives me a different result. Plus I don't get how the integral boundaries change.
Can anyone explain? Thanks a million.
I'm trying to understand the theory behind Bisshopp's large deflection beam theory.
However I'm struggling to follow the steps they described here: [URL unfurl="true"]http://www.pilch.us/papers/Large%20Deflection%20of%20Cantilever%20Beams.pdf[/url]
So I am understanding the bit up until equation (7).
What I get from (6) is that:
sin ψ = 2k^2*sin(θ)^2 - 1
sin ψ0= 2k^2 - 1
however inserting this into eq (5) gives me a different result. Plus I don't get how the integral boundaries change.
Can anyone explain? Thanks a million.
