bob8907
Aerospace
- Apr 2, 2010
- 39
Basically, for my own= information, I am looking at how chassis dyno torque is calculated. They all seem to come in below where the engine torque should be BUT there is ALWAYS a gear reduction to the final output which multiplies torque. For example, one vehicle I looked at was about a 3:1 in 2nd gear. Obviously torque would be multiplied but the RPM would also be reduced by that factor SO..... HP should remain the same as it is a product of torque and RPM.
However, the Torque to the rollers would be about 3X (assuming no Cf losses). Basically, you have a 100ft/lb motor, a 3:1 total ratio, and a 24" rear tire, you will get 300lb/ft to the rear axle. Obviously cars make MUCH more than this so thousands of lbs of torque would be seen at the load rollers. Am I missing something???
However, the Torque to the rollers would be about 3X (assuming no Cf losses). Basically, you have a 100ft/lb motor, a 3:1 total ratio, and a 24" rear tire, you will get 300lb/ft to the rear axle. Obviously cars make MUCH more than this so thousands of lbs of torque would be seen at the load rollers. Am I missing something???