rulljs
Structural
- Apr 12, 2005
- 42
Hello all,
I have an existing sturcture which I have modeled in STAAD that contains a double channel beam (C7x9.8 w/.75" spacing, 15 feet long supported at each end, 36ksi steel). I ran the analysis and the STAAD output is saying that this beam will be overstressed due to the comobined loading EQ. H1-3 AISC 9th ed. This conclusion is not too unreasonable to me, since I am trying to put quite a bit of load on this beam but just out of curiosity I looked into the numbers STAAD used in it's calcs and in the fb/Fb part of the combined stress equation they used Fb=14.65, which is about 0.4*Fy, why is the reduction factor for this so much lower than the usual 0.6*Fy?
I assume this may be due to my laterally unsupported length of my compression flange being to great (15ft), but this is where I am starting to get a bit confused. (Chapter F aisc 9th ed.)
I have an existing sturcture which I have modeled in STAAD that contains a double channel beam (C7x9.8 w/.75" spacing, 15 feet long supported at each end, 36ksi steel). I ran the analysis and the STAAD output is saying that this beam will be overstressed due to the comobined loading EQ. H1-3 AISC 9th ed. This conclusion is not too unreasonable to me, since I am trying to put quite a bit of load on this beam but just out of curiosity I looked into the numbers STAAD used in it's calcs and in the fb/Fb part of the combined stress equation they used Fb=14.65, which is about 0.4*Fy, why is the reduction factor for this so much lower than the usual 0.6*Fy?
I assume this may be due to my laterally unsupported length of my compression flange being to great (15ft), but this is where I am starting to get a bit confused. (Chapter F aisc 9th ed.)