YoungGunner
Structural
- Sep 8, 2020
- 98
My state has a modified building code that states that so long as an opening in a basement foundation wall is a maximum of 6' and the concrete beam has a depth of 12", then you only need (2) #4 bottom bars located 2" from the opening. There will naturally be a bar near the top of the wall but with 3" top cover per the other codes which makes it impossible to use as a compression bar. The top bar area is less than the (2) #4 bottom bars, and the equations for fixed-fixed tend to make the negative moment worse than the positive, leading me to think the state assumes pinned-pinned boundaries. I'm working on determining the maximum point loads or distributed loads such a beam can support and determining the boundary conditions will impact what the worst load effects are.
My question is that if the bars are only placed in the bottom of the beam, is the state assuming the boundary conditions are only pinned-pinned for these beams? This leads to the follow-up; is this a bad assumption for the state to assume pinned-pinned versus fixed-fixed for a beam poured integrally with the foundation wall? Or is it OK to assume pinned-pinned for this mode of construction?
I may be young in the industry, but I'm not willing to accept the standard as the standard without solid argument.
My question is that if the bars are only placed in the bottom of the beam, is the state assuming the boundary conditions are only pinned-pinned for these beams? This leads to the follow-up; is this a bad assumption for the state to assume pinned-pinned versus fixed-fixed for a beam poured integrally with the foundation wall? Or is it OK to assume pinned-pinned for this mode of construction?
I may be young in the industry, but I'm not willing to accept the standard as the standard without solid argument.