MrReds
Mechanical
- Sep 14, 2006
- 40
Hi all !
I am sorry to disturb you with a so banal question, but I'd need your help to clarify a basic doubt.
This doubt is:
if I use f = 0.046/Re^(-0.2)
to calculate the friction factor, this factor is independent by tube material.
This means that if I use this formula, if I have the same flow and the same section, I would obtain same pressure drop in a pipe of plastic, a tube of copper, a tube of iron ecc...
Nevertheless, I am no so convinced of this.
That is: the material of tube influences the pressure drop.
Please, could you explain me what is wrong in my argumentation ?
Thanks a lot
I am sorry to disturb you with a so banal question, but I'd need your help to clarify a basic doubt.
This doubt is:
if I use f = 0.046/Re^(-0.2)
to calculate the friction factor, this factor is independent by tube material.
This means that if I use this formula, if I have the same flow and the same section, I would obtain same pressure drop in a pipe of plastic, a tube of copper, a tube of iron ecc...
Nevertheless, I am no so convinced of this.
That is: the material of tube influences the pressure drop.
Please, could you explain me what is wrong in my argumentation ?
Thanks a lot