BSim
Structural
- Jan 23, 2015
- 1
I'm currently trying to learn how to properly analyze a gantry beam. At our office we have a program supplied to us by the jacking gantry manufacturer that if you put in the beam size and span it will spit out what they say in the maximum allowable load to be placed on the beam. For this example I will say that we were analyzing a W24x250 with a 50 foot span. Now the program that was given to us claims that the beam is capable of supporting a load at midspan of 48.6K (24.3 tons). We have never used this program before and have always used an engineering firm we are familiar with and they have always told us that that beam for our purposes was capable of supporting 37 tons (74K) (we hang the load from the bottom flange with a trolley). I'm an engineer but new at analyzing beams for these purposes and I'm trying to understand how the program calculated this load and how the engineering firm came up with their number (we have operated based on the number they gave us for this beam for years and it has always been safe).
Now the program that was provided to us by the gantry manufacturer is quite old, it's copyrighted 1993 and I have to run is on a DOS emulator. When I input my parameters it asks for:
-AISC Shape (W24x250)
-Material yield stress(50KSI)
-Vertical impact factor in percent (is set default to 10% but can be changed) (I don't know what this is used for and i would like some guidance here)
-Lateral force factor in percent (is set default to 15% but can be changed) (Again I don't know what this is for)
-Span Length (50 feet)
It then just spits out what they claim the max allowable load to be as 48.6 kips.
My confusion here stems from the fact that I have never analyzed a load hung from the bottom flanges of a beam and am not quite sure what the right assumptions are.
I am assuming that the beam will not experience Lateral Torsional Buckling since the load is hung from the bottom, is that assumption correct.
When I analyzed the beam for bending stress I did M=Fy/s and got 2683K-ft
so M/Ω=1607K-ft as the total allowable moment.
I then calculated the moment on the beam due to its own self weight at 78.1K-ft
So the Allowable Moment from the load would be 1529K-ft
and since this is a concentrated load at the center and M=PL/4 I found P=122K which is much greater than either the program of the engineer we have used.
Then I checked shear(even though I knew it wouldn't control). Table 3-2 in the AISC manual gives Vn/Ω as 547K, so my allowable P would be 1094K. (Also I've always been taught to calculate M/Ω by M=Fy/S, and in Table 3-2 they give the values for Mpx/Ωb and the values there are higher than what I calculated, can I use these values of M/Ω instead of calculating it myself all the time?)
...Ok so after that I still have a maximum allowable load of 122K and it's governed by the bending moment. I haven't checked lateral torsional buckling and I'm not sure how to analyze hanging the load from the flange. Any input would be greatly appreciated in how to analyze that and that the purpose of the vertical impact factor and lateral force factor is for.
I know I seem like I have a lot of questions but I am a couple of years out of school and had been working for Thornton Tomasetti for a while before coming to this firm and I didn't do much of this work with them, and no one at this company has ever done this before, they've always hired another firm to do it. I'm not in any kind of rush but I want to learn how to properly analyze this case myself and understand where these numbers are coming from.
Now the program that was provided to us by the gantry manufacturer is quite old, it's copyrighted 1993 and I have to run is on a DOS emulator. When I input my parameters it asks for:
-AISC Shape (W24x250)
-Material yield stress(50KSI)
-Vertical impact factor in percent (is set default to 10% but can be changed) (I don't know what this is used for and i would like some guidance here)
-Lateral force factor in percent (is set default to 15% but can be changed) (Again I don't know what this is for)
-Span Length (50 feet)
It then just spits out what they claim the max allowable load to be as 48.6 kips.
My confusion here stems from the fact that I have never analyzed a load hung from the bottom flanges of a beam and am not quite sure what the right assumptions are.
I am assuming that the beam will not experience Lateral Torsional Buckling since the load is hung from the bottom, is that assumption correct.
When I analyzed the beam for bending stress I did M=Fy/s and got 2683K-ft
so M/Ω=1607K-ft as the total allowable moment.
I then calculated the moment on the beam due to its own self weight at 78.1K-ft
So the Allowable Moment from the load would be 1529K-ft
and since this is a concentrated load at the center and M=PL/4 I found P=122K which is much greater than either the program of the engineer we have used.
Then I checked shear(even though I knew it wouldn't control). Table 3-2 in the AISC manual gives Vn/Ω as 547K, so my allowable P would be 1094K. (Also I've always been taught to calculate M/Ω by M=Fy/S, and in Table 3-2 they give the values for Mpx/Ωb and the values there are higher than what I calculated, can I use these values of M/Ω instead of calculating it myself all the time?)
...Ok so after that I still have a maximum allowable load of 122K and it's governed by the bending moment. I haven't checked lateral torsional buckling and I'm not sure how to analyze hanging the load from the flange. Any input would be greatly appreciated in how to analyze that and that the purpose of the vertical impact factor and lateral force factor is for.
I know I seem like I have a lot of questions but I am a couple of years out of school and had been working for Thornton Tomasetti for a while before coming to this firm and I didn't do much of this work with them, and no one at this company has ever done this before, they've always hired another firm to do it. I'm not in any kind of rush but I want to learn how to properly analyze this case myself and understand where these numbers are coming from.