sdar79
Aerospace
- Feb 8, 2012
- 15
Let's assume an integrally stiffened I-beam under axial compression. As I understand it, the free-edge flanges will buckle first. As load continues to increase the corners and web will eventually buckle. The crippling stress Fcc of this test sample is basically then a P/A, an average stress of the total effective section that would be higher than the local stress in the flanges but lower than the local stress in the corner and web. Is this understanding correct?
Here's what has me confused. On the aircraft I work with, spar caps are sized to prevent crippling using a method of flanges type technique (McDonnell Douglas method). The crippling stress is independent of the spacing between the integral stiffeners. Typically if I do a buckling check of the free flange (assuming 3 fixed edges and 1 free edge to get the K value) I get a failure stress much higher than the crippling stress for the entire section. This is especially true with short spacings between stiffeners because the buckling stress increases as distance between stiffeners decreases. This doesn't make sense to me though because I thought the free flange was supposed to buckle prior to crippling failure of the total section.
Is the crippling stress used for sizing simply to be conservative, even though it may not be the most accurate? Or am I not understanding something here and crippling failure is something different and unrelated to buckling of the individual flanges?
Here's what has me confused. On the aircraft I work with, spar caps are sized to prevent crippling using a method of flanges type technique (McDonnell Douglas method). The crippling stress is independent of the spacing between the integral stiffeners. Typically if I do a buckling check of the free flange (assuming 3 fixed edges and 1 free edge to get the K value) I get a failure stress much higher than the crippling stress for the entire section. This is especially true with short spacings between stiffeners because the buckling stress increases as distance between stiffeners decreases. This doesn't make sense to me though because I thought the free flange was supposed to buckle prior to crippling failure of the total section.
Is the crippling stress used for sizing simply to be conservative, even though it may not be the most accurate? Or am I not understanding something here and crippling failure is something different and unrelated to buckling of the individual flanges?