rob5377
Chemical
- Oct 3, 2007
- 28
Dear All,
I am trying to calculate a pressure at a specified point of the vent system header (see point P1 on the attached draft). The purpose of that is to be sure that during the depressurization of HP section of the pipeline connected to the same header as RD, the disk wont rupture. The set pressure of RD is 3,5 barg. The HP’s pipe pressure is 30 barg and will be depressurized via the vent pipe to the atmosphere.
I am wondering how should I solve this problem. I was thinking about approach:
1.Calculate the maximum mass flow rate after 12” globe valve is full open for critical flow
2. Calculate the velocity in the pipe
3. Calculate pressure drop due to friction starting from the end of the vent (top of the vent stack p=1 atm) to the reducing tee 12”x8”
4. And then I am not sure. Should I keep the same velocity and calculate the friction losses to the RD’s outlet?
Is my approach is OK? At a first glance I supposed that the pressure (only for a moment, at the beginning of the depressurization) will be 30 barg – friction losses of piping from the reducing tee to the RD. But this would be valid only if a RO with small hole was at the end of vent stack.
Can anybody give me a clue how to solve it?
Thanks
rob
I am trying to calculate a pressure at a specified point of the vent system header (see point P1 on the attached draft). The purpose of that is to be sure that during the depressurization of HP section of the pipeline connected to the same header as RD, the disk wont rupture. The set pressure of RD is 3,5 barg. The HP’s pipe pressure is 30 barg and will be depressurized via the vent pipe to the atmosphere.
I am wondering how should I solve this problem. I was thinking about approach:
1.Calculate the maximum mass flow rate after 12” globe valve is full open for critical flow
2. Calculate the velocity in the pipe
3. Calculate pressure drop due to friction starting from the end of the vent (top of the vent stack p=1 atm) to the reducing tee 12”x8”
4. And then I am not sure. Should I keep the same velocity and calculate the friction losses to the RD’s outlet?
Is my approach is OK? At a first glance I supposed that the pressure (only for a moment, at the beginning of the depressurization) will be 30 barg – friction losses of piping from the reducing tee to the RD. But this would be valid only if a RO with small hole was at the end of vent stack.
Can anybody give me a clue how to solve it?
Thanks
rob