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I (Current) Phasor and whether it is a compound number 1

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hyboxis79

Mechanical
Jun 10, 2008
27
I hope anyone can help me with this. When calculating voltage drops with a cos (Phi) lets say 0.8[**see note at hte bottom]. I am not sure whether I am supposed to calculate the voltage drop like


delta V = I (R cos (Phi) + X sin (Phi))

R being the real impedance and X being the reactive impedance
from what I understand it's agreed upon that "V" will always stay real while "I" can be complex.

does this mean that when I calculate the voltage drop on the reactive part I will write

delta V = I(R sin(Phi) + X cos(Phi))





[**]I hope that people understand this notation. I mean by it that it's the cos of the angle between the real P power(measured in watts) and the complex power S (measured in [VA]).
 
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In complex number terms Resistance is real, Reactance is imaginary. Impedance Z is the complex sum of the real resistance and the imaginary reactance.
Z=(Rcos(phi)+ jXsin(phi))
Ohms law applies so V=IZ.
Don't forget this is in rectangular form. To get the same result as you would get from a multimeter you would need to convert to polar form.
Regards
Marmite
 
thanks for you reply

I've encountered a few calculation from a course I took a few years ago where a voltage drop is calculated like this


delta V = I (R cos (Phi) + X sin (Phi))
the answer recieved was a scalar value of the this addition. although obviousely vector addition does allows it.
I thought they were refering to the fact that "I" is a vectorwhich is in an angle Phi to "V". And still it doesn't make too much sense mathematically. maybe they were refering to "V" in R.M.S value?
 
thank you for your posting jghrist. it's very helpful
 
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