PS
Mechanical
- May 16, 2017
- 56
Hello Professionals,
I have come across two methods to determine the frictional pressure drop of FITTINGS (Elbows, Tees, etc.) in chilled water piping. One is to use equivalent length of fittings and the other is by using the local frictional coefficient of fittings. Which one of these methods are preferred most? Because I'm getting two different values as pressure drops by the methods.
Example:
If Black Steel Sch 40 pipe of Diameter 100mm is used for a flow 208 USGPM, fluid velocity = 1.6 m/s, pressure drop = 250 Pa/m, then:
(i) Equivalent Length Method:
An elbow, r/D =1, (90deg) is having an equivalent length of 3.4 m (ASHRAE Fundamentals 1997, Chapter 33, Table 6, Pg: 33.6) . Hence the total pressure drop in the fitting is 3.4*250 = 850 Pa
(ii) Friction Co-efficient Method:
For the same fitting, the friction co-efficient/ K-factor is found to be 0.31. (ASHRAE Fundamentals 1997, Chapter 33, Table 2, Pg: 33.2). The fluid velocity is given to be 1.6 m/s. Then the pressure drop is found by the relation:
dP = (K-factor)*(Fluid Density)*(square of fluid velocity)/2
dP = (.31*1000*1.6*1.6)/2 = 400 Pa.
Would anyone please suggest which one of the methods is the best to proceed? Or else to be conservative, is it wise to always calculate by two methods and take the higher drop?
Thanks in advance for the support.
I have come across two methods to determine the frictional pressure drop of FITTINGS (Elbows, Tees, etc.) in chilled water piping. One is to use equivalent length of fittings and the other is by using the local frictional coefficient of fittings. Which one of these methods are preferred most? Because I'm getting two different values as pressure drops by the methods.
Example:
If Black Steel Sch 40 pipe of Diameter 100mm is used for a flow 208 USGPM, fluid velocity = 1.6 m/s, pressure drop = 250 Pa/m, then:
(i) Equivalent Length Method:
An elbow, r/D =1, (90deg) is having an equivalent length of 3.4 m (ASHRAE Fundamentals 1997, Chapter 33, Table 6, Pg: 33.6) . Hence the total pressure drop in the fitting is 3.4*250 = 850 Pa
(ii) Friction Co-efficient Method:
For the same fitting, the friction co-efficient/ K-factor is found to be 0.31. (ASHRAE Fundamentals 1997, Chapter 33, Table 2, Pg: 33.2). The fluid velocity is given to be 1.6 m/s. Then the pressure drop is found by the relation:
dP = (K-factor)*(Fluid Density)*(square of fluid velocity)/2
dP = (.31*1000*1.6*1.6)/2 = 400 Pa.
Would anyone please suggest which one of the methods is the best to proceed? Or else to be conservative, is it wise to always calculate by two methods and take the higher drop?
Thanks in advance for the support.