heberovchem
Electrical
- Oct 14, 2008
- 10
I know that a single phase to ground fault causes a rise on the neutral potential, but I need to explain that (why). Is it because there has to be some impedance (even though it could be small) between the neutral and ground (through the return path)? If it is a return path shouldn't the neutral voltage be lower than the ground voltage (assuming to be zero at all times)? Now if that is the case how come the phase angles (phase to neutral vectors), in phase-phase to ground and single-phase to ground faults remain unchanged between the faulted phases or un-faulted phases with respect to neutral? I appreciate your feedback