I'm doing an analysis on an existing building that uses cantilever construction. The girders run over the columns and cantilever. Between the two cantilevers there is a simply supported beam. The roof joist run over the top of the girder cantilever and then there is a simply supported beam that frames into the cantilever. Since there is compression in the bottom flange is it necessary to look at the entire span of the member as unbraced or can you look at the member as being unbraced for the negative bending up until the point of inflection. The joists are continuously braced on the top flange and girders top flange is braced by the joist at 7'-9"O.C.. To look at this as fully unbraced seems unnecessary since the members typically see compression in the top flange for a larger portion of their span.
Please see the link for a sketch:
Any information and references on proper way to address this situation would be appreciated.
Thanks,
John
Please see the link for a sketch:
Any information and references on proper way to address this situation would be appreciated.
Thanks,
John