iengineerstuff
Structural
- Aug 4, 2021
- 11
Working on a simple residential project, and came across a weird question with concrete beams. I have a wall that is 50'-0" long, with (2) 18' wide garage doors and a 5'-0" wall in between the garage doors. Due to loads and available depth, I have designed concrete beams to go over these openings. Initially, I designed the beam over a single garage door as simply support on either side and got a complete design, however, i figured from the contractors stand point they will probably pour that whole section together creating a continuous beam condition. Upon a redesign, I determined I did not have adequate top steel to sufficiently resist the applied negative moment, so i fixed that issue and moved on. But then it occured to me that, how much bearing length starts to reduce the applied negative moment on the beam. Obviously if I had 8" of intermediate bearing I wouldn't give this a second thought, but I have 5'-0", and I am convinced the negative must be reduced over the long bearing.
To my question, I designed the beam as a 3 span continuous beam, with an 18'-0",5'-0",18'-0" span, so that the negative moment was "distributed" over the intermediate support, and this allowed my original beam design to work. Is this a correct thought process? Or does anyone have a resource I can get into that talks about this specific topic? I googled to no avail. Any help and advice is appreciated.
Thank you!
To my question, I designed the beam as a 3 span continuous beam, with an 18'-0",5'-0",18'-0" span, so that the negative moment was "distributed" over the intermediate support, and this allowed my original beam design to work. Is this a correct thought process? Or does anyone have a resource I can get into that talks about this specific topic? I googled to no avail. Any help and advice is appreciated.
Thank you!