Forgive me if this is a simple matter, but I've been unable to find any examples relating to my question.
Of course, we can control the coplanarity of n surfaces by noting "nX" before a profile FCF; no datums need be referenced. As Y14.5 says, "Each surface must lie between two common parallel planes...". Emphasis mine.
Now, consider a composite profile FCF, preceded by "nX", where the lowermost segment references no datums. As above, we're refining the form of the surfaces, but must each of the n surfaces fall within two common parallel planes?
I say yes (all surfaces must conform "together"), but can't back it up with hard fact. My only evidence comes from this thought experiment: Consider a rectangular part outline controlled by an all-around composite profile tolerance, the lowermost segment referencing no datums. The rectangular profile, as a whole, is allowed to move in all 6 DOF. It does not simply boil down to 4 independent flatness controls.
So, does the coplanarity of n surfaces follow this same logic?
Of course, we can control the coplanarity of n surfaces by noting "nX" before a profile FCF; no datums need be referenced. As Y14.5 says, "Each surface must lie between two common parallel planes...". Emphasis mine.
Now, consider a composite profile FCF, preceded by "nX", where the lowermost segment references no datums. As above, we're refining the form of the surfaces, but must each of the n surfaces fall within two common parallel planes?
I say yes (all surfaces must conform "together"), but can't back it up with hard fact. My only evidence comes from this thought experiment: Consider a rectangular part outline controlled by an all-around composite profile tolerance, the lowermost segment referencing no datums. The rectangular profile, as a whole, is allowed to move in all 6 DOF. It does not simply boil down to 4 independent flatness controls.
So, does the coplanarity of n surfaces follow this same logic?