Coco_HueHueHue
Electrical
- Apr 8, 2018
- 49
Hello,
I did browse the internet a lot and only found part of the answer to a question i am asking myself.
I keep reading that running a VFD in V/Hz control mode at a low frequency will overheat the motor.
I keep reading that the magnetizing current is significant and the motor can't cool down because of its slow rotation (internal fan).
Honestly, i do not understand why the motor would overheat at a low frequency... we have a constant V/Hz ratio.
If the frequency is 0 or very low, then, the voltage will be 0 or very low.
How can a motor overheat when almost no voltage is at its terminals?
I understand that there is no cooling, but if the voltage is near 0... the current has to be near 0 too...
If a motor nominal current is 20 Amp at 600VAC/60Hz, then, at 0.5V/0.5Hz, the current should be 16mA... maybe a little more because of the magnetizing current. But the magnetizing current is constant (from the motor design) and is very small compared to the load current.
I believe there is a piece of information i am missing.
I AM NOT SEARCHING FOR A ANSWER LIKE : "WHEN YOU RUN A MOTOR AT LOW SPEED IT OVERHEATS".
I browsed google a lot and this is the only thing i found.
Does anyone have a clear explanation, a technical article or a good book reference explaining this?
Thank you very much!
I did browse the internet a lot and only found part of the answer to a question i am asking myself.
I keep reading that running a VFD in V/Hz control mode at a low frequency will overheat the motor.
I keep reading that the magnetizing current is significant and the motor can't cool down because of its slow rotation (internal fan).
Honestly, i do not understand why the motor would overheat at a low frequency... we have a constant V/Hz ratio.
If the frequency is 0 or very low, then, the voltage will be 0 or very low.
How can a motor overheat when almost no voltage is at its terminals?
I understand that there is no cooling, but if the voltage is near 0... the current has to be near 0 too...
If a motor nominal current is 20 Amp at 600VAC/60Hz, then, at 0.5V/0.5Hz, the current should be 16mA... maybe a little more because of the magnetizing current. But the magnetizing current is constant (from the motor design) and is very small compared to the load current.
I believe there is a piece of information i am missing.
I AM NOT SEARCHING FOR A ANSWER LIKE : "WHEN YOU RUN A MOTOR AT LOW SPEED IT OVERHEATS".
I browsed google a lot and this is the only thing i found.
Does anyone have a clear explanation, a technical article or a good book reference explaining this?
Thank you very much!