tonyel
Mechanical
- Sep 2, 2003
- 8
This question has been bugging me since I did a 'driver training day'. It was stated with great authority by the trainer that, contrary to standard practice (and what I had always done) it was more effective to brake harder (ie, more pedal pressure) at the start, when the car was travelling faster, and reducing the pressure as the car slowed. This was because '...it is harder to lock the wheels at high speed...'.
Nothing in my understanding of friction predicts this - although I only know about the standard, simplified 'coulomb friction'. In a road car with no significant downforce - is he correct? And if so, why?
Nothing in my understanding of friction predicts this - although I only know about the standard, simplified 'coulomb friction'. In a road car with no significant downforce - is he correct? And if so, why?