Is not 'cos(theta)' assumed to be 45 degrees?
My understanding is that the angle varies from 90 degrees, when the motor is over-driven at synchronous speed, to 0 degrees at peak torque.
If rated torque is 50% of peak torque, then rated torque will be developed when the conductor is at a 60 degree angle to the field rather than 45 degrees.
I would suggest you are looking at a different angle, let's call it delta. P ~ |V1| |V2| sin(delta) / X applies to real power transfered through a series inductance. Often used for syncrhonous machines (where X is synchronous reactance) or for power transfer through tranmission lines.
There are a variety of ways we can characterize induction machines which may include an angle associated with the fields and I'd be glad to try to explore those later...
But for the angle theta that I'm talking about in my torque equation, I will now proclaim it to be the "power factor angle" of the rotor impedance (I should've done that earlier). We can view that in either frame but in the rotor frame it is the power factor of the series impedance Z2''= j(wsync-wrotor)L2 + R2. As such theta would not change directly with load, but only indirectly through speed (wrotor). So we see a big change in theta from starting to running conditions but a relatively small change in angle as load changes cause wrotor changes near full load and an even smaller change in the
cos of the angle as wrotor changes near full load (since the slope of the cos curve is relatively flat near the peak).
I can support this interpretation of angle theta as the power factor angle of the rotor through 2 different lines of reasoning (I'll call them proofs). The first proof is through the paper attached to my post 7 Mar 23 14:21 where the equation was "derived". The second proof is through a textbook reference.
First proof based on paper posted 7 Mar 23 14:21 section where the torque is "derived" from the Lorentz force on conductor equation as T = R N L I B p.f. or at least that's my suggestion for an intuitive derivation
(the devil is in the details when we look closely at which B we're using and where the torque is applying, but nonetheless for reasons I'd be glad to discuss it is well accepted we can calculate the motor torque as if the conductors were exposed to the airgap flux).
The abbreviated version of the derivation:
[ul]
[li]For a single conductor:
F= I B L[/li]
[li]For N conductors all carrying current I in field B:
F= N I B L[/li]
[li]If we allow both I and B to vary sinusoidally as a function of angle around the circumference, then if N is large when we integrate the product of I and B over all those conductors we get approx N I B cos(theta).... (it is the same math we use when we integrate the product of sinusoidal voltage and sinusoidal current... we end up with V times I times cos of the angle between them):
F= N I B L cos(theta)[/li]
[li]To convert force to torque we multiply by R:
T= N I B L cos(theta) R[/li]
[li](Kdp is not derived since a sinusoidal approximation to the fields was used).[/li]
[/ul]
So from that derivation we saw theta was the angle between the max of the B wave and the max of the I wave. The B wave of interest is in the airgap so it represents the T point in the equivalent circuit where L1, L2, and Lm all attach together. And that represents the voltage applied to the rotor circuit (*). we know the relationship between the rotor current and voltage, it is given by the power factor angle of the rotor impedance.
(*) Ok, I made a jump from B to V, how did I do that? Let's say the maximum of the B wave is at some reference angle call it 0 degrees in the rotor reference frame. That B is rotating so as it changes in magnitude it induces voltage in rotor loops formed by adjacent bars. The shape of that induced voltage if we plotted it for all the loops around the rotor is related to the rate of change of B with respect to the coordinate angle, so it is the spatial derivative which introduces a 90 degree phase shift. In other words the loop voltages peak 90 degrees away from B. But for bar currents we don't care about loop voltage, we care about the difference between adjacent loop voltages among the two loops sharing the bar (which is what drives the current in the bar). This again corresponds to spatial differentiation which causes another 90 degree phase shift and puts the voltage driving bar currents back in phase with the B (0 or 180 degrees). So the airgap V (which drives bar currents) is in phase with B and the angle between either of those and the max current would be the same.
It seems like I'm preoccupied with the rotor, what about the stator? Well from the Tee equivalent circuit the load component of the stator current is the same as the rotor current (they have the same phase and same amp turns). So indeed regardless of whether we combine airgap flux with rotor current or stator load component of current, we would see the same angle and same load amp turns and calculate the same magnitude of torque (in opposite direction)... which is something that would make Newton and his third law happy.
ok, i'm done with the first proof. Somehow I'm not sure how many will be satisfied but feel free to comment or poke at it however you please.
Second proof. Attached to this message is page 179 of ref 9 of the previous attachment, which is "Electrical Machinery" by Liwshitz-Garik and Whipple, Copyright 1946, Van Nostrand Company. (let me know if that particular jpg format from my pixel phone is not readable, i can convert it if not readable).
Reference 9 (Volume 2, page 179) gives the following equation for total torque-producing force as equation 7.21a
F = 6.25E-8 L N Bgap Irms Kdp
The 6.25E-8 is associated with the units selected as I showed in my previous attachment section 12.4.2. (I
love how he makes things "simpler" by assuming the units for us [/sarcasm])
In going from 7.21a for force to 7.22 for torque, he multiplies by radius (which is the obvious requirement). He makes some other changes in 7.22 which complicate things unnecessarily for my purposes, but I hope you can see that in in multiplying 7.21a by radius, it will match my earlier torque equation.
He hasn't addressed the angle yet but he does so in the last full paragraph at the bottom of the page:
Liwschitz-Garik said:
This equation has been derived under the assumption that the rotor current is in phase with its emf. If this is not the case, the cosine of the angle between them (Ψ2s) has to be introduced into the torque equation. The considerations are the same as for the determination of a power of a circuit where voltage and current are in phase or out of phase. Thus in general... ...
So he resolves this by adding the cos of the angle Ψ
2s between rotor emf and rotor current which I think is easy to recognize as rotor power factor angle.